Why Is the General Will Always Right

Rousseau assumed that all people are capable of taking the moral standpoint of aiming at the common good and that, if they did so, they would reach a unanimous decision. Thus, in an ideal state, laws express the general will.

Why does Rousseau claim the general will is always good?

Rousseau assumed that all people are capable of taking the moral standpoint of aiming at the common good and that, if they did so, they would reach a unanimous decision. Thus, in an ideal state, laws express the general will.

What is the difference between the general will and the will of all in practice how can the two be distinguished?

In practice, how can the two be distinguished? The general will is the will of the sovereign: it aims at the common good and it is expressed in the laws. The will of all is simply the aggregate of the particular wills of each individual.